As denoted under RESPA, Reg X., if a creditor applies payments to the oldest outstanding periodic payment, a payment by a delinquent borrower [b]advances the date the borrower’s delinquency began. For example, the mortgage loan provides that a periodic payment sufficient to cover principal, interest, and escrow is due on the first of each month. The borrower, however, fails to make a payment on January 1 or on any day in January and on January 31 the loan is now 30 days delinquent. On February 3, the borrower makes a periodic payment and we apply the payment as of the date of receipt (i.e., February 3). On February 4, the borrower is 3 days delinquent.
Based on the above and in this scenario, it would appear that the creditor would "not" report the mortgage loan 30 days delinquent under FCRA.
I just need a sanity check. Thank you!