Alright, I'm having a brain freeze. If I have term loan that originated several years ago (say 1/1/2004), that matures two years from now (say 1/1/2009), and I increase it by $50,000 today and push out the maturity date for an additional year (to 1/1/2010) - only the new $50,000 is reportable - correct?
I'm pretty sure this is always how I've looked at these - mainly that the original loan amount is not due, and therefore we are not extending new credit to them, but rather changing the terms on the existing credit. But all of the sudden I'm second guessing myself.
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You keep using that word. I do not think it means what you think it means.